A 44-year-old man is evaluated in follow-up for an episode of unprovoked left proximal leg deep venous thrombosis 3 months ago. Following initial anticoagulation with low-molecular-weight heparin, he began treatment with warfarin. INR testing done every 3 to 4 weeks has shown a stable therapeutic INR. He has mild left leg discomfort after a long day of standing, but it does not limit his activity level. He tolerates warfarin well. Family history is unremarkable, and he takes no other medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. He has mild edema of the left leg below the knee, with postthrombotic pigmentation. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?