A 43-year-old man is evaluated for a 2-day history of painful swelling of the left thigh just below the groin. He reports no preceding trauma, immobility, surgery, hospital stay, or long-distance airline travel. Medical history is notable for well-controlled hypertension. His only medication is losartan.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 28. An approximately 6-cm area of erythema and tenderness with a palpable cord is present overlying the greater saphenous vein on the proximal medial aspect of the left thigh up to the inguinal crease, consistent with superficial thrombophlebitis. Examination of the distal extremities is normal, without swelling or asymmetry. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?