A 45-year-old man is evaluated in follow-up for iron deficiency anemia discovered during routine evaluation 1 week ago. His complete blood count was normal when he was last evaluated 1 year ago. He feels well, his medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications.

The physical examination performed 1 week ago was normal.

A fecal occult blood test is negative.

Iron replacement is initiated.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?