A 52-year-old man is evaluated for low back pain of 3 months' duration that is nonradiating, progressive, and worse with ambulation. He reports no preceding injury. Medical history is notable for smoldering multiple myeloma diagnosed 1 year ago; he has been stable since that time. His only medication is as-needed acetaminophen.

On physical examination, temperature is 36.8 °C (98.2 °F), blood pressure is 132/82 mm Hg, pulse rate is 70/min, and respiration rate is 14/min. No focal neurologic findings are noted. He has pain to palpation of the lower lumbar spine. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL (130 g/L), serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 µmol/L), and serum calcium level of 9.8 mg/dL (2.5 mmol/L).

Plain radiographs of the lumbosacral spine demonstrate degenerative disk changes in the lumbar spine but no lytic lesions or fractures.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?