A 73-year-old woman undergoes follow-up warfarin monitoring. She takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation and her INRs have previously been stable. Five days ago, she was prescribed a 3-day course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection. Three weeks ago, her INR was 2.9; this morning, her INR is 8.2. She has no history of major bleeding.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. No bruising or bleeding is evident. The cardiac examination reveals an irregular rhythm but is otherwise unremarkable.

Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin level of 13.6 g/dL (136 g/L) and platelet count of 178,000/μL (178 × 109/L).

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?