A 35-year-old woman is evaluated following a recent diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia secondary to menorrhagia. She began an oral contraceptive to control bleeding and oral iron sulfate 6 weeks ago. She has no other medical conditions and takes no additional medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. The conjunctivae are pink. No petechiae or purpura is evident. The remainder of the examination is normal.

Laboratory studies show a hematocrit level of 39%, leukocyte count of 5800/µL (5.8 × 109/L), and platelet count of 35,000/µL (35 × 109/L).

The peripheral blood smear is shown.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?