An 18-year-old woman is evaluated in follow-up after routine evaluation 3 months ago revealed iron deficiency thought to be related to menorrhagia. She is African and emigrated from the Ivory Coast 6 months ago. Medical history is remarkable for a 2-year history of chronic dyspepsia treated occasionally with a liquid antacid. Her other medications are an oral contraceptive pill and oral ferrous sulfate three times daily.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. She appears healthy.

Laboratory studies:

3 Months Ago

Current

Hematocrit

30%

33%

Mean corpuscular volume

70 fL

70 fL

Platelet count

525,000/µL (525 × 109/L)

500,000/µL (500 × 109/L)

Reticulocyte count

0.4% of erythrocytes

Red cell distribution width

17.5% (normal, 14.6%-16.5%)

17%

Iron studies

Ferritin

10 ng/mL (10 µg/L)

10 ng/mL (10 µg/L)

Iron

15 µg/dL (2.7 µmol/L)

15 µg/dL (2.7 µmol/L)

Total iron-binding capacity

425 µg/dL (76 µmol/L)

400 µg/dL (71.6 µmol/L)

Transferrin saturation

3.55%

3.75%

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?