A 63-year-old man is scheduled for recommended repeat colonoscopy in follow-up of adenomatous polyps detected on screening 3 years ago. Medical history is significant for an unprovoked pulmonary embolism 5 years ago. He was initially treated with warfarin but switched to rivaroxaban 1 year ago because of fluctuating INR values with warfarin. He is otherwise healthy and has had no bleeding.

Laboratory studies show a normal complete blood count and a serum creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL (70.7 µmol/L).

Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's anticoagulation for undergoing colonoscopy?