A 63-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for significant shortness of breath and pleuritic anterior chest pain of 48 hours' duration. Three days ago, he completed a 12-hour flight from Asia to the United States. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable and he takes no medications.
On physical examination, he is in mild respiratory distress. He is afebrile, blood pressure is 135/87 mm Hg, pulse rate is 108/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. Oxygen saturation breathing ambient air is 94%. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable.
Electrocardiography shows nonspecific ST- and T-wave changes. Echocardiography shows normal right ventricular function. CT angiography of the chest demonstrates multiple pulmonary artery filling defects in the distal branches of the right pulmonary artery consistent with pulmonary embolism.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?