A 67-year-old man is evaluated for progressive lower extremity swelling and dyspnea with exertion of 12 months' duration and orthopnea of 2 months' duration. He is black. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and he takes no medications.
On physical examination, temperature is 36.8 °C (98.2 °F), blood pressure is 118/64 mm Hg, pulse rate is 84/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. He has jugular venous distention, a summation gallop, and dullness to percussion and decreased breath sounds at the lung bases. Bilateral lower extremity pitting edema extends to the mid-calf level. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.
On laboratory testing, complete blood count is normal. Comprehensive metabolic profile reveals only an elevated total serum protein level. Serum protein electrophoresis and immunofixation reveal a monoclonal IgG κ band measuring 0.9 g/dL. A 24-hour urine protein electrophoresis and immunofixation reveal no monoclonal protein and no albuminuria.
Chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly and bilateral pleural effusions. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals severe symmetric left ventricular and septal thickening with a small ventricular cavity and reduced systolic function. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy shows clonal plasma cells representing 8% of the total cellularity. Although a bone marrow biopsy is negative, a Congo red stain of a fat pad aspirate is positive for amyloid deposits.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?