A 33-year-old woman was diagnosed with BRCA1 mutation 2 months ago. Her paternal aunt was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 45 years and was found to have a deleterious BRCA1 mutation. She has no family history of ovarian cancer. She has one child and would like to have another child in the next year. She seeks advice on when to have prophylactic bilateral salpingo-oophorectomies (BSO). She is in good health and has no active medical problems.

Physical examination shows no worrisome breast masses. Pelvic examination is normal. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.

Laboratory studies are normal. Results of a mammogram 1 month ago, a transvaginal ultrasound 2 weeks ago, and a breast MRI 1 week ago are normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?