A 42-year-old woman is evaluated for postcoital bleeding and intermittent pelvic pain. She otherwise feels well. The patient is premenopausal and has two children.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. General examination is normal. An ulcerating 2-cm cervical mass is visible on speculum examination. Bimanual pelvic examination shows a bulky mass in the cervix that is fixed to the left pelvic side wall and is not mobile.

Results of complete blood count and serum chemistry panel are normal.

CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows a 4.5-cm mass involving the lower uterus and extending to the left pelvic side wall. Left hydronephrosis and hydroureter are present. No disease is detected outside the pelvis. Biopsy of the cervical mass shows poorly differentiated invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Chest CT is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?