A 55-year-old woman is evaluated for a mass in her left breast. She otherwise feels well. She is postmenopausal. Medical and family histories are otherwise negative and she takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. A firm, mobile mass measuring 2.5 × 2.0 cm is palpated in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast, adjacent to the areola. There is no right breast mass. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Mammogram of the left breast shows a 2.9-cm spiculated mass at the site of the palpable lesion. Ultrasound examination shows a 3.5-cm mass. Ultrasound-guided biopsy specimens reveal grade 3 invasive ductal carcinoma that is estrogen receptor negative, progesterone receptor negative, and HER2 positive. No lymphovascular invasion is noted.

A preoperative echocardiogram is normal; the left ventricular ejection fraction is 65%.

The patient desires breast-conserving surgery, but the surgeon believes that the mass is too large to resect with a lumpectomy because of her small breast size, the moderately large size of the cancer, and its central location.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?