A 57-year-old woman undergoes follow-up evaluation. The patient underwent bilateral breast reduction surgery 3 months ago. The initial pathology report noted bilateral atypical ductal hyperplasia. Examination of additional pathology specimens showed no evidence of carcinoma. A mammogram obtained 2 months prior to the breast reduction surgery was normal.

The patient has been taking continuous conjugated estrogen and medroxyprogesterone hormone replacement therapy (HRT) since menopause at age 50 years. HRT has been tapered since the diagnosis of atypical ductal hyperplasia, and plans are to discontinue therapy in 1 month. There is no family history of breast or ovarian cancer.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Well-healed mastopexy incisions with mild induration are present. There are no breast masses. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate breast cancer prevention strategy?