A 62-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-month history of nausea, anorexia, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight loss. A superficial spreading melanoma of the left thigh, 2.2 mm deep, with one positive sentinel lymph node was diagnosed 1 year ago. The patient declined adjuvant interferon alfa therapy.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. There is a well-healed 4-cm incision on the upper left anterior thigh and a healed incision in the left inguinal area. Abdominal examination reveals mild right upper quadrant tenderness to palpation, and the liver is palpable 4 cm below the costochondral margin with a nodular, firm edge. The remainder of the examination is normal.

Laboratory studies are significant for alanine aminotransferase of 211 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase of 156 U/L, and serum bilirubin of 1.6 mg/dL (27.4 μmol/L).

CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows an enlarged liver with five hypodense lesions in both lobes measuring up to 2.5 cm that are consistent with metastases. There are no ascites, abdominal lymphadenopathy, or splenomegaly. Ultrasound-guided liver biopsy specimens show metastatic melanoma. CT scan of the chest is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?