A 32-year-old woman undergoes postoperative follow-up evaluation. The patient was diagnosed with a 1.9-cm, stage II, estrogen receptor–positive, progesterone receptor–positive, HER2-positive grade 3 invasive ductal carcinoma of the left breast, with 2/6 positive lymph nodes. She underwent breast excision 2 weeks ago. Medical history is otherwise noncontributory. She and her husband have one child and wish to have additional children.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. There is a healing left breast incision. There is no lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Laboratory studies are normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?