A 64-year-old man is evaluated for a 2-month history of increasing abdominal discomfort, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and decreased appetite. He has lost 2.5 kg (5.5 lb) during this time. Medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 29. A 3-cm left supraclavicular lymph node is palpated. The abdomen is moderately distended, soft, and nontender. The liver is enlarged on palpation. Testicular examination is unremarkable. A digital rectal examination shows a normal rectum and moderately enlarged prostate without nodularity. A stool sample is negative for occult blood.

Laboratory studies are significant for a serum alkaline phosphatase level of 340 U/L, serum total bilirubin level of 1.3 mg/dL (22.2 µmol/L), and serum creatinine level of 0.7 mg/dL (61.9 µmol/L).

CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis show extensive metastases scattered throughout the liver, with enlarged periportal and retroperitoneal lymph nodes measuring up to 4 cm in diameter and no bony metastases. CT-guided needle biopsy of the liver shows moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma. Upper endoscopy and colonoscopy are normal.

Treatment for which of the following malignancies would be most appropriate?