A 60-year-old woman is evaluated for a 5-year history of asymptomatic, intermittently enlarged lymph nodes. She has no other significant medical history and takes no medications.
On physical examination, the patient is afebrile, blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg, pulse rate is 76/min, and respiration rate is 12/min. Enlarged cervical, axillary, and epitrochlear lymph nodes are palpated. There is no splenomegaly. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Complete blood count and peripheral blood smear are normal. Chest radiograph is normal. CT scans show no evidence of mediastinal, abdominal, or pelvic lymphadenopathy.
A lymph node biopsy reveals a CD20-positive grade II follicular lymphoma, and a bone marrow biopsy shows infiltration with small CD20-positive lymphocytes representing 20% of the cellular elements. Fluorescence in situ hybridization analysis shows the presence of the BCL2 oncogene.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?