A 38-year-old man is evaluated for a pigmented lesion on his upper left back. The lesion has been increasing in size over the past 2 months. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Medical history is unremarkable.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. A 1.8-cm, irregular, dark, pigmented, slightly raised papule with irregular borders is present on his upper back. There are no adjacent lesions and no associated lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Skin biopsy shows malignant melanoma, superficial spreading type, and measuring 1.4 mm in thickness, with invasion into the reticular dermis but not into the subcutaneous tissue. Dermal mitotic figures are not identified, and there is no lymphovascular invasion. Tumor extends to the lateral and deep margins of the excision. There is evidence of a vertical growth phase.

In addition to complete excision with a 2-cm margin, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?