A 34-year-old woman is evaluated for a 4-week history of tenderness in her left lower breast. Her paternal grandmother died of ovarian cancer at age 54 years. There is no family history of breast cancer. She has a 2-cm palpable left lower outer breast mass on exam. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Results of complete blood count and serum chemistry panel are normal. A mammogram shows increased density and calcifications at the site of the palpable mass. Ultrasound examination reveals a 1.9-cm hypoechoic mass. Ultrasound-guided needle biopsy specimens show a high-grade invasive ductal carcinoma, estrogen receptor–negative, progesterone receptor–negative, and negative for HER2 amplification.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?