A 48-year-old man is evaluated for a 7-year history of spreading plaques associated with dry, itchy skin. He has no other significant medical history and takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Skin lesions are present on the arms, back, and legs. Representative skin findings on the back are shown.

There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Results of complete blood count and serum chemistry panel are normal.

Chest radiograph is normal. Skin biopsy reveals infiltration with CD4-positive T cells with cerebriform-appearing nuclei consistent with mycosis fungoides.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?