A 69-year-old woman is evaluated for a 3-month history of intermittent rectal bleeding and increasing fatigue. Medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. Her father died of metastatic colon cancer at age 78 years.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Bowel sounds are normal, and the liver and spleen are not enlarged. Digital rectal examination discloses blood-streaked stool.

Colonoscopy reveals a nonobstructing 4-cm mass in the mid rectum, approximately 8 cm from the anal verge. Biopsy findings show adenocarcinoma. Pelvic MRI shows tumor penetration into, but not through, the rectal wall (TNM stage T2); no abnormal lymph nodes are seen (TNM stage N0). Contrast-enhanced CT scans of the chest and abdomen are normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?