A 24-year-old man is evaluated after he felt a mass in his right testicle. The patient is asymptomatic and is otherwise healthy.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. A 2- to 3-cm solid mass is palpated in the right testicle. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Serum α-fetoprotein level is normal, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is 450 U/L, and serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin level is less than 5 U/L.

Testicular ultrasound confirms the presence of a hypoechoic solid right testicular mass.

Right radical inguinal orchiectomy is performed, and pathological examination reveals seminoma. Subsequent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows no lymphadenopathy or evidence of metastatic disease. The tumor is stage I based on surgical and radiographic findings and tumor marker studies. LDH is normal following orchiectomy.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?