A 44-year-old woman undergoes follow-up evaluation. Stage I cancer of the left breast was diagnosed 3 years ago (1.4-cm, grade 2 invasive ductal carcinoma, estrogen receptor positive, progesterone receptor positive, HER2 negative, 0/2 positive sentinel lymph nodes, and a low score on 21-gene recurrence score testing). BRCA1/2 testing results were negative. She underwent breast-conserving surgery and radiation therapy and then started tamoxifen. The patient is concerned about her risk of recurrence. Menses are irregular. She has occasional hot flushes and night sweats on tamoxifen but otherwise feels well. There is no family history of breast or ovarian cancer.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI has remained stable at 22.4. Well-healed left breast and left axilla incisions are present. There are no breast masses or lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Results of a bilateral mammogram obtained 1 month ago were normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?