A 51-year-old woman undergoes a follow-up evaluation. The patient recently required surgery for stage I cancer of the right breast confirmed as a grade 3 invasive ductal carcinoma that was estrogen receptor negative, progesterone receptor negative, and HER2 negative. Sentinel lymph nodes were negative. The patient currently states that she feels well. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and she is perimenopausal.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Healed incisions of the right breast and right axilla are present. There are no masses in either breast and no lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?