A 79-year-old man is evaluated for a recent diagnosis of prostate cancer following detection of a left-sided prostate nodule during evaluation for worsening prostatic hyperplasia symptoms. Biopsy of the prostate nodule showed adenocarcinoma with a Gleason score of 6; additional core samples were negative for cancer. Medical history is also significant for myocardial infarction and heart failure. The patient has been hospitalized three times in the past 12 months because of exacerbations of heart failure. Medications are carvedilol, lisinopril, metoprolol, aspirin, furosemide, tamsulosin, and finasteride.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Mild bibasilar crackles are auscultated and there is trace lower extremity edema. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable.

Serum prostate-specific antigen level prior to biopsy was 4.9 ng/mL (4.9 µg/L).

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?