A 48-year-old woman is evaluated for a 6-month history of rectal pain and bright red blood per rectum upon defecation. She has a long-standing history of genital warts. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and she takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Abdominal examination reveals no masses. Bowel sounds are normal, and the liver and spleen are not enlarged. Digital rectal examination reveals a hard, tender mass in the anal canal measuring approximately 2.5 cm in diameter. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy.

Laboratory studies are unremarkable.

Contrast-enhanced CT scan of the pelvis confirms the anal mass and shows no associated lymphadenopathy or other abnormalities. Contrast-enhanced CT scans of the chest and abdomen are normal. Biopsy of the anal mass shows invasive squamous cell carcinoma.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?