A 55-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-year history of postprandial indigestion. Associated symptoms are nausea, oily stools, and a 4.5-kg (10.0-lb) weight loss over the past 6 months. His medical history is significant for a recent diagnosis of prediabetes. His current medications are ibuprofen, acetaminophen, and omeprazole.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal; BMI is 25. Scleral icterus is present. Abdominal examination reveals epigastric abdominal pain without guarding or rebound. The remainder of the examination is normal.
Upper endoscopy is normal. Contrast-enhanced CT scan shows a solid 2.5-cm hypoattenuating lesion suspicious for pancreatic adenocarcinoma confined to the head of the pancreas. Dilation of the upstream pancreatic duct and common bile duct is noted. There is no regional lymphadenopathy. The liver parenchyma appears normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?