A 63-year-old woman is evaluated for a 2-month history of pain in her right chest and right ribs as well as right upper abdominal discomfort. Medical history is significant for stage II cancer of the right breast diagnosed 4 years ago and identified as an estrogen receptor–positive, progesterone receptor–negative, HER2-negative invasive ductal carcinoma with negative sentinel lymph nodes. She was treated with breast-conserving therapy, primary breast radiation therapy, and adjuvant chemotherapy and has been receiving adjuvant anastrozole since completing radiation.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. There is tenderness over the anterior lower right ribs, but no mass or bone defects are present. There are no breast masses or lymphadenopathy. Abdominal examination shows no epigastric mass or tenderness. The liver and spleen are not palpable.

Chest and rib radiographs are normal. CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis show two liver lesions and lytic bone lesions in the spine and pelvis consistent with metastases.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?