A 42-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-month history of dyspepsia and increasing episodes of nausea. Medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Examination of the abdomen is normal.

Upper endoscopy discloses a large (6-cm) mass in the wall of the proximal duodenum. Biopsy reveals a gastrointestinal stromal tumor staining positive for KIT protein (CD117). Contrast-enhanced CT scans of the chest and abdomen show no other abnormalities.

The patient undergoes complete resection of the mass with clear margins. The final pathology report confirms the original diagnosis and notes a high mitotic rate of 5 to 10 mitoses per 50/hpf. The tumor is classified as being at higher risk for recurrence on the basis of its mitotic rate, large size, and location in the small intestine.

Which of the following is the most appropriate adjuvant treatment?