A 43-year-old woman undergoes follow-up evaluation following a recent diagnosis of estrogen receptor–positive, progesterone receptor–positive, HER2-negative, grade 2 invasive ductal carcinoma of the left breast. The patient was treated with surgery, adjuvant chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. This is her first postradiation visit. She currently takes no medications. She is premenopausal.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Well-healed incisions of the left breast and left axilla are present. There is no lymphadenopathy and no right breast masses. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Results of a complete blood count and serum chemistry panel are normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?