A 59-year-old man is evaluated in the ICU for fever and leukocytosis. He was admitted to the ICU 13 days ago with respiratory failure resulting from Guillain-Barré syndrome and was intubated and mechanically ventilated. On hospital day 9, he developed fever without an increase in secretions or change in oxygenation. A new left lower-lobe infiltrate was seen on chest radiograph, and his leukocyte count was 17,500/µL (17.5 × 109/L). Sputum culture grew methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. Nafcillin was started, with temporary resolution of the fever within 48 hours. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Medications are nafcillin and intravenous immune globulin.
On physical examination, temperature is 38.2 °C (100.8 °F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, pulse rate is 94/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. Pulmonary examination reveals decreased breath sounds in the left lower lung field. The remainder of the examination is noncontributory.
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 17,300/µL (17.3 × 109/L). Sputum Gram stain reveals 1+ leukocytes and 1+ gram-positive cocci in clusters.
A new moderate left pleural effusion, but no increase in the left lower lobe infiltrate, is seen on chest radiograph. CT scan shows left lower lobe consolidation with air bronchograms and a moderate left pleural effusion.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?