A 42-year-old woman undergoes evaluation after being admitted to the hospital 2 days ago with fever; chills; and redness, pain, and swelling over the left mid-anterior shin to just below the knee. She reports falling 5 days before admission and abrading her shin. Empiric vancomycin was started on admission. Medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled by diet. She takes no other medications.
On physical examination, temperature is 38.7 °C (101.7 °F), blood pressure is 112/74, pulse rate is 110/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. On cardiopulmonary examination, the lungs are clear, and no murmur is heard. A large area of erythema, tense edema, and diffuse tenderness is observed over the left anterior shin without signs of lymphangitic spread.
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,500/µL (14.5 × 109/L) and serum vancomycin trough level of 17 µg/mL. Blood cultures obtained at admission grow methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus with a vancomycin minimum inhibitory concentration of 4 µg/mL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's antimicrobial regimen?