A 30-year-old woman is evaluated for a 2-day history of increasing pain in the right antecubital fossa and biceps. She reports daily injection drug use. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and she takes no prescription medications.

On physical examination, temperature is 39.7 °C (103.5 °F), blood pressure is 90/56 mm Hg, pulse rate is 120/min, and respiration rate is 28/min. BMI is 28. She appears ill. No lymphangitis or right axillary or epitrochlear lymphadenopathy is evident. The right biceps area is extremely tender and warm, with multiple track marks, woody induration, edema, and overlying ecchymotic bullous lesions.

Laboratory studies:

Leukocyte count

23,000/µL (23 × 109/L) (80% neutrophils, 12% band forms, 8% lymphocytes)

Aspartate aminotransferase

55 U/L

Bilirubin, total

2.0 mg/dL (34.2 µmol/L)

Creatinine

1.7 mg/dL (150 µmol/L)

Electrolytes:

Sodium

135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L)

Potassium

4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L)

Chloride

95 mEq/L (95 mmol/L)

Bicarbonate

16 mEq/L (16 mmol/L)

No gas or foreign body is seen on plain radiographs of the right arm and shoulder.

In addition to emergent surgical evaluation, which of the following is the most appropriate empiric treatment?