A 50-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for persistent fever and flank pain. She was admitted 3 days ago for treatment of pyelonephritis because of nausea and vomiting. Her fever is persistent after 72 hours of treatment. Medical history is unremarkable. Her only medication is intravenous ceftriaxone.

On physical examination, temperature is 39.0 °C (102.2 °F), blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse rate is 110/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. BMI is 26. Right costovertebral angle tenderness is noted on abdominal examination. The remainder of the examination is noncontributory.

Urinalysis and culture on admission revealed greater than 100,000 colony-forming units/mL of Escherichia coli susceptible to ceftriaxone. Blood culture is negative.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?