A 35-year-old man undergoes consultation for concerns of a possible HIV exposure. He reports that the condom broke the previous night during receptive anal intercourse with a partner who has HIV. He states that his partner is reliably taking antiretroviral therapy and is healthy. Medical history is notable for a negative HIV test result 6 months ago. He takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal, as is the remainder of the physical examination.

An HIV antigen/antibody combination immunoassay is ordered.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?