A 65-year-old woman is hospitalized for fever and altered mental status. Four days ago, she experienced headaches and had a temperature of 39.0 °C (102.2 °F). Today she developed aphasia, prompting hospital admission. Her medical history is otherwise noncontributory, and she takes no medications.
On physical examination, temperature is 39.3 °C (102.7 °F), blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg, pulse rate is 98/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. The patient is unresponsive and grimaces to sternal rub. The neck is resistant to passive flexion. All extremities move spontaneously. There is no rash.
Leukocyte count | 150/µL (150 × 106/L); 38% lymphocytes, 34% neutrophils, 28% monocytes |
Erythrocyte count | 0/µL (0 × 106/L) |
Glucose | 54 mg/dL (3.0 mmol/L) |
Protein | 137 mg/dL (1370 mg/L) |
Pressure (opening) | 150 mm H2O |
Gram stain | No organisms |
Brain MRI shows no focal abnormality or hydrocephalus.
The patient is administered empiric therapy with dexamethasone, vancomycin, ceftriaxone, ampicillin, and acyclovir pending additional test results.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?