A 42-year-old woman is evaluated for headache of 4 days' duration. The headache is nonlocalizing and without apparent triggers. She reports no recurrent headaches and has no history of migraine. She has had untreated dental caries for 2 months and has noticed jaw swelling in the left mandibular region for the past 3 days. She takes no medications.
On physical examination, the patient is awake, alert, and oriented but appears uncomfortable. Vital signs, including temperature, are normal. Neck stiffness is present. Oral examination reveals several broken teeth and generally poor dentition, with the left upper molars showing evidence of dental caries. Neurologic examination reveals impaired extraocular movements, but mental status is normal. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable.
A CT scan of the head shows a small ring-enhancing lesion in left temporoparietal junction, approximately 1 cm in diameter.
CT-guided stereotactic aspiration of the abscess is planned.
Which of the following is the most appropriate empiric antibiotic to administer intravenously?