A 31-year-old woman is evaluated for a 5-day history of a nonpainful cutaneous lesion on the back of her left hand. She works as a packer in a parcel distribution center. She does not recall injury to this area and reports no unusual employment or recreational exposures. She has not had fever, cough, shortness of breath, headache, chest discomfort, or gastrointestinal symptoms. Yesterday, two coworkers were evaluated for similar lesions. Her husband has recently been prescribed an antibiotic after being diagnosed with a “boil” from which methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus was cultured. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive pill.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Other than the lesion on the proximal dorsal surface of her left hand, the physical examination is normal.

The hand lesion is shown.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?