A 30-year-old woman is requesting HIV testing. She is asymptomatic and reports no known exposure to a person with HIV. She has had multiple lifetime sexual partners, all of whom are men, and none of whom were men known to have sex with other men. She reports no intravenous drug use by a sexual partner or herself. She does not use condoms and has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 6 months. Medical history is negative for any opportunistic infections or sexually transmitted infections. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive pill.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 23. The remainder of the evaluation is normal.

The HIV-1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay is reactive. Result on a subsequent HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation immunoassay is negative, as is result on an HIV-1 nucleic acid amplification test.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?