A 22-year-old woman is evaluated for a 4-day history of vaginal discharge. The discharge is thick and yellow. She has no abdominal pain. She is sexually active. Medical history is unremarkable, with no drug allergies.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Pelvic examination reveals an inflamed and friable cervix. Mucopurulent discharge is noted from the cervical os. No cervical motion, adnexal, or uterine tenderness is noted. The vaginal mucosa and vulvar area are normal in appearance. Wet mount shows only numerous leukocytes. The pH of the vaginal secretions is 5. Result of the whiff test is negative, and no fungal elements are seen on examination of the potassium hydroxide preparation.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?