A 46-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with abdominal pain, worsening diarrhea, and intermittent low-grade fever of 1 week's duration. She reports no nausea, vomiting, or swallowing symptoms; no melena or hematochezia; and no rash. She underwent kidney transplantation 4 months ago. She is cytomegalovirus seropositive and received an organ from a cytomegalovirus-seronegative donor; she received valganciclovir for 3 months after transplantation with no clinical or laboratory evidence of cytomegalovirus disease. Medical history is significant for autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease. Medications are tacrolimus, prednisone, mycophenolate mofetil, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
On physical examination, temperature is 37.3 °C (99.1 °F), blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg, pulse rate is 104/min, and respiration rate is 16/min. BMI is 23. Mucous membranes are dry. The abdomen is soft with mild tenderness in lower quadrants, bowel sounds are normal, and no rebound or guarding is noted. No skin rash is noted, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Stool culture is positive for Candida albicans. Results on Clostridium difficile toxin nucleic acid testing are negative.
Plain radiograph of the abdomen is unremarkable and shows a normal bowel gas pattern without free air.
Which of the following is the most likely cause for the patient's diarrhea?