A 68-year-old man was admitted to the hospital 4 days ago for community-acquired pneumonia. He has COPD and presented with a 2-week history of fever and increasing shortness of breath, but no increase in his baseline cough. He was hypoxic, and a chest radiograph showed new patchy infiltrates in addition to his underlying interstitial changes but no pleural effusions. Empiric antibiotics were initiated, and blood and sputum cultures have shown no growth. His dyspnea and oxygenation have not improved significantly since admission. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable. He has a 45-pack-year smoking history and continues to smoke. Medications are tiotropium, fluticasone-salmeterol, and as-needed albuterol metered dose inhalers and intravenous cefotaxime and azithromycin.

On physical examination, temperature is 38.6 °C (101.5 °F), blood pressure is 128/55 mm Hg, heart rate is 97/min, and respiration rate is 33/min. Oxygen saturation is 92% with the patient breathing 6 L/min of oxygen by nasal cannula. BMI is 28. Pulmonary examination shows decreased air movement and scattered rhonchi throughout both lung fields, unchanged from admission. Cardiac and abdominal examinations are unremarkable, and no lower extremity edema is present.

Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 13,500/µL (13.5 × 109/L) (on admission, 14,700/µL [14.7 × 109/L]). Metabolic studies are normal.

Chest radiograph continues to show multilobar, patchy infiltrates and increased interstitial markings without pleural effusions, unchanged from admission.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?