A 44-year-old man is evaluated for acute rejection of a transplanted kidney. Medical history is significant for autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease requiring transplantation 18 months ago. He and his donor were both seronegative for cytomegalovirus, and the patient received standard prophylaxis. His posttransplantation course has been remarkable for previous episodes of rejection, the last of which was approximately 6 months ago. He also has hypertension. Current medications are amlodipine, tacrolimus, prednisone, and mycophenolate mofetil. He is scheduled to have his level of immunosuppression increased significantly for the current episode of rejection.

Physical examination findings are unremarkable.

Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 4500/µL (4.5 × 109/L) with 88% polymorphonuclear cells and 8% lymphocytes and a serum creatinine level of 1.8 mg/dL (159 µmol/L).

For which infection should this patient receive prophylaxis at this time?