A 22-year-old woman is evaluated for a dog bite to the right arm. The dog is reported to be up to date on all vaccinations. Medical history is notable for Crohn disease, and she is up to date on all immunizations, with a tetanus-diphtheria-acellular pertussis vaccine administered 3 years ago. Her only medication is infliximab.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. No epitrochlear or axillary lymphadenopathy is noted. The right forearm has several minor punctures and tears, with a small amount of erythema and minimal tenderness. No warmth, edema, or purulence is present.

Plain radiograph of the right forearm shows no evidence of fracture, gas, or foreign body.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?