An 82-year-old woman is evaluated for a 1-week history of urinary incontinence with lower abdominal discomfort. She reports no dysuria, fever, or back pain. Medical history is significant for hypertension and allergic reaction to sulfa drugs, which cause a generalized rash. Her only medication is amlodipine.

On physical examination, temperature is 36.8 °C (98.2 °F), blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, pulse rate is 72/min, and respiration rate is 16/min. Mild suprapubic tenderness but no costovertebral angle tenderness are noted on abdominal examination. The remainder of the examination is noncontributory.

Urine dipstick is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?