A 21-year-old woman is hospitalized for a 4-day history of progressively worsening right-lower-quadrant abdominal pain with dyspareunia, fever, and chills. On the day of admission, the patient developed nausea with several episodes of vomiting. She takes no medications and has no known allergies.

On physical examination, temperature is 38.8 °C (101.8 °F), blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse rate is 110/min, and respiration rate is 12/min. Abdominal examination reveals positive bowel sounds with tenderness in the right lower quadrant accompanied by localized rebound. On pelvic examination, the cervix is erythematous with a small amount of mucopurulent discharge. Cervical motion tenderness and tenderness in the right adnexal region are noted, without adnexal fullness or masses.

Result on a pregnancy test is negative, and pelvic ultrasonography shows fluid in the cul de sac with thickening of the right fallopian tube but no tubo-ovarian abscess.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?