A 65-year-old woman is evaluated for a 3-day history of diarrhea and fever. She reports no abdominal pain or vomiting. She notes mucus intermixed with the stool, but no visible blood. She is also experiencing fatigue and anorexia. She works as a nurse.

On physical examination, the patient appears uncomfortable but is in no acute distress. Temperature is 38.2 °C (100.8 °F), blood pressure is 148/66 mm Hg, pulse rate is 84/min, and respiration rate is 22/min. Abdominal examination reveals hyperactive bowel sounds and mild diffuse tenderness to palpation.

Laboratory studies reveal a leukocyte count of 11,400/µL (11.4 × 109/L) and a positive result on a fecal occult blood test.

Empiric levofloxacin is started for presumed bacterial gastroenteritis, and a stool sample is sent for culture. Twenty-four hours later, the culture reveals Campylobacter jejuni resistant to levofloxacin. A call to the patient confirms she feels well, with resolution of diarrhea and fever.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?