A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for fever and chills of 1 day's duration. He was admitted 3 days ago for lower gastrointestinal bleeding and hypotension, and a right internal jugular venous catheter was inserted for intravenous fluid hydration and blood transfusion. Blood cultures drawn through the central catheter and peripherally during initial evaluation of the fever were positive for gram-positive cocci in clusters. The central venous catheter was removed and vancomycin started. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and he takes no other medications.
On physical examination, temperature is 38.1 °C (100.6 °F), blood pressure is 118/74 mm Hg, pulse rate is 94/min, and respiration rate is 16/min. The previous intravenous catheter site is mildly tender to palpation, without erythema, drainage, or fluctuance. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
The original blood cultures grew methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus, and repeat blood cultures 24 hours after the start of antibiotics are positive for gram-positive cocci. Transthoracic echocardiography shows no valvular vegetations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?