A 62-year-old man is evaluated during a follow-up visit for hypertension. His clinic blood pressure readings during the past year have been persistently above 140/90 mm Hg, and home blood pressure readings have been in the range of 150-170/90-96 mm Hg. He reports no symptoms. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Medications are maximal doses of lisinopril, nifedipine, and atenolol.
On physical examination, temperature is 36.8 °C (98.2 °F), blood pressure is 168/100 mm Hg in both arms with no orthostasis, pulse rate is 60/min, and respiration rate is 16/min. BMI is 29. Retinal examination shows copper wiring of the arteries. An S4 is heard on cardiac auscultation. There are no bruits heard over the carotids or abdomen. Neurologic and peripheral vascular examinations are normal. There is no edema.
Creatinine | 1.5 mg/dL (132.6 µmol/L) |
Potassium | 4.1 mEq/L (4.1 mmol/L) |
Estimated glomerular filtration rate | 45 mL/min/1.73 m2 |
Urinalysis | No protein, blood, or cells |
Electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Kidney ultrasound is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?